f(x)=ex⇒f′(x)=ex. We can prove why the derivative of ex is equal to ex (itself) in several ways, some of which we will show below.
Way 1
n→∞lim(1+n1)n=e=2.71828...
n→∞
n1→∞1
n1→0
If h=n1 transformation is done;
h→0
n→∞lim(1+n1)n=e
n1→0lim(1+n1)n=e
h→0lim(1+h)h1=e
h→0limh1+h=e
f′(x)=h→0limhf(x+h)−f(x)
(ex)′=h→0limhex+h−ex
(ex)′=h→0limhex(eh−1)
(ex)′=h→0limex.h(eh−1)
(ex)′=ex.h→0limh(eh−1)
(ex)′=ex.h→0limhh→0lim(eh−1)
(ex)′=ex.h→0limhh→0limeh−h→0lim1
(ex)′=ex.h→0limh(h→0limh1+h)h−h→0lim1
(ex)′=ex.h→0limhh→0limh(1+h)h−h→0lim1
(ex)′=ex.h→0limhh→0lim(1+h)−h→0lim1
(ex)′=ex.h→0limhh→0lim(1+h−1)
(ex)′=ex.h→0limhh→0limh
(ex)′=ex.1
(ex)′=ex
Way 2
f(x)=ex
lnf(x)=lnex
lnf(x)=x.lne
lnf(x)=x.1
lnf(x)=x
[lnf(x)]′=(x)′
f(x)=lng(x)⇒f′(x)=g(x)g′(x)
f(x)f′(x)=1
f′(x)=f(x)
f′(x)=ex
Way 3
By using the infinite series expansion of the function ex, we can prove that the derivative of ex is equal to itself. The expansion of the function ex in question series form is as follows.
ex=1+x+2!x2+3!x3+4!x4+5!x5+...
(ex)′=(1+x+2!x2+3!x3+4!x4+5!x5+...)′ (we take the derivative of both sides of the equation)
Found this insightful? Imagine your knowledge generating income. Contribute your articles to bylge.com and connect with readers while unlocking your earning potential.